God is the paradigm of goodness. Now it seems the atheists have heard that one so much they decided to do something about it. What makes it seem as though there is an analytic entailment from pto [Sought to believe that p\ is, ï¬rst, that the conditional, [If But uttering sentences one after the other doesnât âgetâ anywhere. The general form is what Kant calls a hypothetical imperative. Allow me to point you to the newest attempt by Sam Harris to derive "ought" from "is". Just for clarity's sake, it should be noted that Hume doesn't actually say that you can't derive an ought from an is. But that is not to say that âbecause God is a certain way we ought to behave in certain ways.â At best you can conclude from the premises that some ought statement is plausible. See more. This is Humeâs famous is/ought gap: you canât derive an ought from an is. An "ought" is a statement of preference, whereas an "is" is a statement of reality. We think that our account provides a simpler analysis of the puzzle. I don't want to spend another week bogged down with this issue, so I'm not going to say much, especially since my original criticism was not so much that he purports to derive "ought" from "is" as that he fails to show that morality is objective in the sense discussed in contemporary metaethics. We can spell this out logically as follows: One of the most punchy criticisms of Sam Harris says that deriving an âoughtâ from an âisâ is like adding two even numbers and obtaining an odd one â you donât have to check the working to know youâve made a mistake somewhere. It is obvious that by âget thereâ you meant âinfer.â if you did not mean this, then you only mean that we can state two âisâsâ and then state an ought. This problem has probably been around ever since people began thinking of ethics but David Hume formulated it in concrete terms in the 18th century. The âis-ought fallacyâ is another recurring âfolk philosophyâ phrase â meaning âyou canât derive an âoughtâ from an âisââ, after Hume. Obviously if the premises of your argument contain no 'ought' statements then you can't logically derive an 'ought' from them. reveal a genuine counterexample to the Humean dictum that you canât derive an ought from an is. So you did offer an argument, and the âoughtâ does not follow, for exactly the reasons I have explained. This has been known ever since as the âis-oughtâ problem. Here is an example: If you want to get along with people, then you ought to be honest and friendly. It seems to me that this theory does derive an âoughtâ from an âis,â and justifiably soâthough not in the way you imagine. Doughty definition, steadfastly courageous and resolute; valiant. But actually it is easy to derive âoughtâ from âisâ. Basically the problem is that you cannot deduce from a set of facts what ought to be. He merely says that he knows of no way to do so, and that it's common to transition from talking about is to ought without explaining how that transition was made. The theory does, as you say, ground moral values in God's unchanging nature. Back when I was in college and taking up philosophy, the received opinion concerning ethics claims, the standard doctrine espoused by all my teachers, was that, since Hume at least, we can all agree that one can't derive "ought" statements from "is" statements, that is claims about what we ought to do in any given case do not follow based on the descriptions of the facts of the case alone. However, I think most people who want to say we can derive an ought from an is would all agree with this rather trivial observation. Humeâs argument is gigantic. That you can't derive an ought from an is has always been my standard answer to atheists who try to impose a genetically based ethics by equating genetically based behavior with moral choices. 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